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Why did Dumbledore have James' cloak?

by David Haber

On a new post on her official web site, J.K. Rowling admitted she made a mistake in New York when she was asked, what question have you never been asked that you ought to have been asked? She now says the question should have been, Why did Dumbledore have James' invisibility cloak at the time of James' death, given that Dumbledore could make himself invisible without a cloak?

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Reader Comments: (Page 67)

One last thought about a watcher at Godric's Hollow, maybe Harry get a chance to watch the events unfold firsthand in the pensieve. I know, I know, gruesome!

The missing 24 hours could be the reason JKR had trouble writing of Dumbledore after his apparent .

When considering the question of why Dumbledore had James' cloak, I think it is helpful to remember JKR's affinity for foreshadowing and echoing. The only person I can remember using the cloak in any of the six books besides the trio, is Snape. This leads me to think it was he who was using the cloak before it was returned to Harry.
Spying on the Eaters as a double agent under the Invisibility Cloak could foreshadow his current position beside Voldemort "under the cloak" of loyalty, which he attained by ing Dumbledore. I think he was set up by Voldemort to force him into a corner to prove one way or the other whose side he was on. In the final showdown, Voldemort needs to know without doubt who supports him and who doesn't. Snape is in the ultimate position of the fulcrum of power. Harry's and Voldemort's fates both depend on him.

Posted by Patty from Quincy MA on June 29, 2007 09:56 AM

It couldn't be a James horcrux because we know he is . (in the fourth book) when Harry battled Vol Harry's parents (both Lily and James) appeared and helped him... (they were DEAD!)

Posted by Kelpy from Happy land on June 29, 2007 11:42 AM

all the order of the phoenix were taking turns using the invisible cloak, what if james, him being in the order, gave it to dumbledore for the order to use?

Posted by pamela sue from arkansas on June 30, 2007 11:18 AM

Patty from Quincy MA,

I agree 100% with you on the cloak being used by Snape at Godric's Hollow. I am also glad that you so perfectly describe who the true power-holder is in this series. For some time now, I have felt that Snape is going to be the one who decides the fates of everyone. Severus Snape has been working behind the curtain since Harry was born and perhaps even before that. Sometimes JK gives us a glimpse or a hint at what these things might be...but i think that we must assume that for every time we hear of Snape and his working, that we have been held oblivious to 2 more. He seems to have the full faith of both Dumbledore and Voldemort, and we know that he is a significantly powerful wizard (great occlumens, creater of spells (Sectumsempra), and an excellent potions master). Anyone who has managed to do the things that Snape has done, is needless to say, a very dangerous, and cunning individual. Snape is steering the course of this story, not Harry. So I stick with my post from 6/20/07 that Snape was under the cloak the night the Potters d.

Posted by William White from NC, USA on June 30, 2007 9:06 PM

that is just so paranoid.

Horcrux requires an advanced dark magic knowledge.

James cannot be have done it.

Posted by Drag from Turkiye on July 1, 2007 07:22 AM

Patty, thats what I thought too, however, JKR has already said that Snape was not using the invisibility cloak at Godric's Hollow. Its on her website. I think in the rumors section. My money is on Petunia having been the reason that Dumbledore had the cloak. James and Lily had asked Dumbledore to get the cloak to Petunia so that she could visit her sister. That would make Petunia a surprising source of information for Harry, because, maybe Lily told or gave petunia something that be useful to him. This is also tied into the creaky stair theory.

Posted by leah from nyc on July 2, 2007 01:36 AM

William: in her rumours section, Jo stands for sure that Snape wasn't under the cloak at Godric Hollows.

Besides that, if Snape had a decisive action on Voldemort's fional defeat, he would be the chosen one, not Harry. We have to keep in mind that Harry is the one that can vainquish Voldemort, not Snape.

Posted by herve from strasbourg on July 2, 2007 04:22 AM

It could be HARRY'S horcrux. Harry committed a didn't he? He ed Voldemort when he was a baby (only voldemort had some horcruxes too.) So it could be the horcrux of harry.

Posted by Sith Nite from Netherlands on July 2, 2007 06:28 AM

Sith: If I'm ever involved in a that's not my fault, I sincerely hope you're not my defense attorney!

EVERYONE! Not every caused by someone else is a MURDER! requires criminal intent. If someone s because of you accidentally, or if you are protecting yourself, YOU HAVE NOT COMMITTED MURDER!

And, it is MURDER that is required to make a horcrux. Only someone truly evil can make one!

Posted by Dave Haber from Los Angeles, CA on July 2, 2007 06:29 AM

I would assume that Dumbledore told Lily and James about the prophecy. They know that their son is a marked man and have made arrangements to have their family protected. Do they honestly think that their one year old son is going to lift a wand to fight Voldemort and defeat him? I would assume that both parents know they are going to have to fight to the to save Harry. I think that the cloak would have been one of James' prize possesions. He probably accepted the fact that he was going to and wanted to leave something for his son. Dumbledore is a wise man and probably had them make arrangements for Harry's future in case of their s.

Posted by Joy from Virginia on July 2, 2007 3:31 PM

I see I've been misunderstood.
I never thought Snape was using the cloak at Godric's Hollow. I believe he was using it in Dumbledore's service to spy on Eaters for many years, but not that he was present the night of the attack.
Someone might have been present, maybe using the cloak, maybe not.
I had another thought of what Dumbledore might have used the cloak for -- to conceal and remove Voldemort's body, probably to study it, and to prevent Eaters from using it to bring him back. I highly doubt that was the reason that James left it with Dumbledore, but since he had it anyway he might have used it for this purpose.

I do think that Snape's influence on events shape the storyline through Harry's emotional reactions to him and Voldemort's trust in him.

Posted by Patty from Quincy MA on July 3, 2007 10:45 AM

does not necessarily imply "criminal intent." If you recall, when Voldemort goes to Godric's Hollow to Harry and his parents, he was at the height of his power. The Wizarding World was in open warfare - Order of the Phoenix vs. Eaters and Lord Voldemort. Therefore, it is VERY possible - downright probable - that James ed someone, (obviously that "someone" would be a DE). Could he not have made a horcrux out of that , the of an enemy DE?

Furthermore, JKR has confirmed that both Lily Potter and Albus Dumbledore are . But has she confirmed that James Potter is ? If LV went to the home of the Potters and ed Lily, and attempted to Harry, why wasn't James ed? Was he not home; perhaps ed later? Why would JKR confirm the of Lily, but not of James?

Although far-fetched, I think the theory that James's invisibility cloak is his horcrux is a very good one, and very possible at that. The theory explains why he would "entrust" it to Dumbledore, a very powerful wizard, possibly the only member of the Order whom he could trust to protect his only horcrux...

Posted by Ryan on July 3, 2007 2:18 PM

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